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In every derivation of the Schwarzschild solution I found, at some point the "weak-field" approximation is made. Nevertheless, the same solution is used to describe black holes, down to r=0. Why is this?


Question asked by: knowitall

Why shouldn't the same solution be used down to r = 0 - sorry I know this isn't really an answer, but I'm not sure why down at this level the approximation should not only apply with equal validity as at larger sizes?
By: Unknown
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Question Keywords

solution  describe  nevertheless  holes  r=0  weak-field  schwarzschild  

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