In every derivation of the Schwarzschild solution I found, at some point the "weak-field" approximation is made. Nevertheless, the same solution is used to describe black holes, down to r=0. Why is this?
Question asked by: knowitall
Why shouldn't the same solution be used down to r = 0 - sorry I know this isn't really an answer, but I'm not sure why down at this level the approximation should not only apply with equal validity as at larger sizes?
By: Unknown
Average rating for this answer is 4 / 5
Rate Answer
No comments have been added to this question "In every derivation of the Schwarzschild solution I found, at some point the "weak-field" approximation is made. Nevertheless, the same solution is used to describe black holes, down to r=0. Why is this?".
Ask a New Question
Find out more about Physics
Physics Questions and Answers miscellaneous physics Questions and Answers Next question: a boy is setting in front seat of bus moving with 30 miles per hour he throw a ball with a speed of 30 miles per hour. With what speed will it move?
Become a Member! It's Free >>>
Share on Facebook: 
On Twitter:
Tweet this!
Question Keywords
solution describe nevertheless holes r=0 weak-field schwarzschild
More Questions:How Does An Aeroplane Stay Flying In The Sky?
What Are The Alternatives To Dark Matter And Dark Energy?
A Pilot Needs To Travel 200 Km/h [E]. The Wind Is Blowing At 65 Km/h [N 15 Degrees W]. Wha Air Speed And Direction Does The Pilot Need To Reach His Goal?
What Is Smell? Is It A Form Of Energy?or What Makes Materials Giving Different Smell?
What Do You Understand By Achromatic Aberration?